You should be able to solve this

NTA, but if you crit first, the next one doesn't have to be a crit, but it still can be. If you don't crit first the next one has to be a crit.

Fucking retard. Dumb shit fucking stupid nigger.

25%, 33.3%, or 50% depending on how you interpret the question, which is vague with poorly defined parameters requiring at least one assumption that is not outright stated in order to be justified.

>the next one has to be a crit
then only one of the hits will be a crit, you need both

>which is vague with poorly defined parameters
No it isn't you retarded ESL.

it does, the order changes the outcome to one of three possibilities (33%)
crit > no crit
no crit > crit
crit > crit

I forgot stats but I think the format of the question if written out is
P(X=2|X>_1), p(x=.5)

50% because the question then just becomes you have a 50% chance to crit, what are the odds you will crit?

Yeah it's time to replay my wife Lissa's game

You have a legitimate learning disability. You are one chromose short of being a monkey.

50%. Either both are crits or they aren't

Both 'crit > no crit' and 'no crit > crit' are considered same events in this situation.

You either crit or you don't so the probability is 10%

Wait for the Switch remake

You guys are dumb as fuck. I bet you're black.
is right.

You're a fucking idiot
1 hit is a guaranteed crit, and the other is 50%
The first crit is just flavour text to confuse you

Honestly bored of Three Houses and I'm not going back to my N3DS, thats locked away in the attic now. I would love another FE or at least remake.

50%
either it happened or it didn't

see >at least one of the hits is a crit
>no crit + no crit
jiff rel is you

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The last option simply become no crit/crit because the second hit is forced to be crit, but it's still a separated event.
And he ask for 2 crit, so yeah, 25%

bullshit question. no matter what you do, by definition both hits cannot have a 50% crit chance

is right

for a start, no matter what you do if the first hit does not crit the second hit now has 100% crit chance

to get 33% this gives both hits 66% chance to crit overall

if we assume the FIRST hit needs to have a 50% crit chance
crit->crit 25%
crit->no crit 25%
no crit->crit 50%
which gives the answer 25%

but now the second hit has 75% crit overall

if we assume the SECOND hit needs 50% crit overall (it cannot truly have 50% crit as a non-crit first hit must give 100% crit)
crit->crit 25%
crit->no crit 50%
no crit->crit 25%

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Let's ignore the Hit-Crit forced scenario. Assuming a 50% first crit, the second crit is also 50%.

.5 * .5 = .25 = 25%

Where in the image does it say it's specifically the first hit that is a 100% you illiterate shit-for-brains?

events either do or dont happen. everything has a 50% chance to happen

Its 3 rows of text and you cant even read that?

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oh and obviously if you just arbitrarily give the first hit 100% crit (which the question does not tell you to do) then the second hit truly has 50% crit

God no wonder this place is filled with schizoids. You're all morons!

>one of == the first one specifically
Fucking kill yourself you dumb fuck.

Depends if you're asking before or after the first hit has been dealt.

If the first hit handed and it was a crit, the chance the second hit will crit is only 50%.
If the first hit that landed wasn't a crit, the second hit is 100% going to be a crit under these conditions.

The no crit -> no crit scenario cannot occur under these conditions either.

>no crit->crit 50%
and
>no crit->crit 25%
are wrong.
they are 100%.

100%
I'm a fucking powerful unstoppable mega warrior

'at least'. this allows no crit->crit you troglodyte

Who cares what she says.

What does it fucking matter if its the first one
If you flip a coin, and then a second coin thats both heads, then you're chances are still 50/50 for the first coin
At least 1 is still 1 you fucking mouthbreather

I hope you guys are just having fun sperging around and not actually serious about those answers

Retard: it's 50% because there are two choices.

Midwit/Redditard: it's 1/3 because thats what my teachers told me. Even though it doesn't work like that in reality.

High IQ: it's 1/4 because there are 4 equally likely outcomes. Conditional probability is not relevant here.

Retarded question with multiple responses regarding the interpretation and order. It's either 25% 33.3% or 50%. More details are needed in order to get the exact response

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that is the ovall probability. 0.25 * 1 = 0.25
mathsisfun.com/data/probability-tree-diagrams.html

2 hits with 50% chance gives you 25% chance of 2 crits, 50% chance of 1 crit and 25% chance of no crits.
Discounting that last possibility means you scale the remaining possibilities to fill 100%, i.e. multiply by 100% / 75%.

It's not.
There is only one correct answer and the other 2 are only possible if you change the question

Yes it is you mathematically illiterate retard.

This is a classic probability problem but just worded in a weird way.
If you interpret it in a classic way, "two hits were made normally, we know that at least one of them was crit", the answer is 1/3.
If you interpret it as a silly, "you always hit twice when attacking and one of those two is guaranteed to be crit" then the answer does not matter because the problem is not interesting from the probability standpoint.

Okay, so if I understand correctly, there's a base 50% chance for a crit, but one of them is guaranteed. So it's absolutely 33%. If the first one is a non crit, the second hit is guaranteed. If the first one is a crit, the second either is or isn't a crit, with a 50% chance. Only one of those three scenarios is a double crit. I don't understand how it's anything but 33%, with the information given in the OP.

>What does it fucking matter
It matters in that you end up with three possible outcomes, one of which being the condition you're looking for, you failed abortion.

I read the percentages as the probability of the second part, not the pair of events asa whole. My incorrect.

The problem that has 33% answer is a conditional probability problem and does not have anything guaranteed. One of the hits happened to be crit, none of them were guaranteed.

worded that way, 50%.
its like asking if a tree falls on a woman and nobody is there to see it then why was a tree in a kitchen.
You are igonring part of the question in an attempt to sound smart but youre basically trying to bait ppl into an argument

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It can be 50% if you’re a dumbass and 25% if you completely ignore the conditional.

By you're broken fucking logic you're even wrong because theres 4 possible outcomes
0 Crits
2 Crits
1st crit no crit
No crit 2nd crit
If you're gonna drink bleach you at least should try and aim for your mouth you unloved orphan

>NTA
stop doing this you fag

I flipped a coin and got heads. What are the odds I got heads?

0 crits is not possible given the question.

40% Heads, 40% tails, 10% lands on the side

>by you're
She says one of them has to be a crit. Learn basic English before you go posting on an anglophone forum you shitskin ESL subhuman.

It's 50%
>b-but the order!
>b-but the different outcomes!
It doesn't matter you retards, whether it's the first hit or the second one doesn't change anything.
Stop being retarded and actually read the question.

Remind me to gamble with you some day.

>She says one of them has to be a crit. Learn basic English before you go posting on an anglophone forum, you shitskin, ESL subhuman.
Fixed that for you.

Can't even do basic arithmetic. Look at him. This is who you're arguing with.

you guys are (mostly) all retarded and i'm here to explain why:

597543717
"no crit - no crit" is not impossible. you always had the chance to not crit either time - it's just in this instance that you didn't. it is still factored into the odds.
in simple terms: imagine someone told you survivors of a plane crash had a 100% chance of survival. they explain, "well they didn't die, right? so you can just remove it from the odds."

this assumes that the first crit is not guaranteed. if the question specified a weapon that always dealt at least 1 crit per two hits your answer would be incorrect.

this assumes the first crit is guaranteed. if the question specified that this was just an ordinary weapon then you'd be incorrect.

the secret is that this question is not a math problem - it is a communication problem. without explaining why one of the hits is a crit you end up with two different but equally (in)valid interpretations of the question. and thus, two different answers.

then you have mouth breathers who think it's 33%.

hit crit
crit hit
crit crit

33%
inb4 the crits are different

based poppa pump poster

its worded in an esl way. for the first interpretation to make sense it has to be in past tense

otherwise you HAVE to assume that the hits are dependent events, otherwise you couldnt possibly guarantee that 1 must crit

Thanks you solved a conundrum I've been trying to figure playing Path of Exile for a while now
Your average person really IS a fucking retard who can neither understand the concept of probability, nor of probabilities being overridden by certainties

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My brain is actually going to ooze out of my ears with some of these answers.