Math thread

Math thread
Post a problem
To let the others solve it

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Other urls found in this thread:

math.stackexchange.com/questions/1325033/proof-of-6174-as-the-unique-4-digit-kaprekars-constant
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particular_values_of_the_Riemann_zeta_function
physicsforums.com/threads/covariant-and-contravariant-tensors.421698/
twitter.com/AnonBabble

9+10

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whats 9+10

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the answer is ligma

90

What's the area under the curve x^2 + 1

21

Max doesn't like math... :(

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It's arbitrarily large unless you define from Wich point to Wich point in the x axis.

the area IN the curve or AROUND the curve? either way it'd be infinite would it?

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oh yeah... how the fuck do I express that, again?
if y>0 and x>0

910

yeah it would be infinite

ok ok ok
what's the area under the curve -x^2 + 1 if y>0 and x>0

Still arbitrarily large. It's infinity unless you say from a to b in the x axis.
Basically the area is equal to the definite integral of the curve's equation evaluated in a and b.

When does 13 equal 52?

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Ok, that one is doable, the answer is 2/3

it would still be infinite...

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Pick four numbers at random. For instance the last four numbers of your post.
Rearrange the four digits from highest to lowest. And then subtract the same digits arranged lowest to highest. Repeat these steps until you hit a constant. You just found Kaprekar’s Constant.

Here’s an example 8474
Rearranged from highest to lowest
8744
And from lowest to highest
4478
8744-4478=4266

Repeat
6642-2466=4176

Keep going
7641-1467=6174

Keep going
7641-1476=6174

Keep going

Any four digits go

No user, it wouldn't. Notice the minus before the x^2

*any four digits but at least one digit has to be different

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Your curve should be the other way around this time because of the minus sign. Since the question says x and y are bigger than 0 then it's only half of the are under the curve above the x axis. If you integrate the equation and you go from 0 to 1 or from -1 to 1 and then divide by 2 you get 2/3

based

yes it frickin would. y = x^2 + 1 is the exact same as y = -x^2 + 1 because two negative numbers multiplied together make a positive one

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user... -(x^2) =-x^2
This one is a negative number regardless of what you out inside. (-x)^2=x^2 but then putting the minus sign in front would be irrelevant. That's why by convention we say that -x^2=-(x^2)

I got 1/2...
int 0 to 1 of 1/2x^3+x = 0 + -1/2(1)^3 + 1 = 1/2

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find the area of a circle without using Pi

thank you so much

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can we divide by pi?

Wrong
Integral of (-x^2+1)dx= -((x^3)/3)+x
Now if we use 0 and 1 as our points we get
((-1/3)+1)-0=2/3
Remember to use lots of Judaism to not confuse your stuff.

oh ffs you're making us do curvature?

that's not how antiderivation works
the antiderivative of x^2 is 1/2x^3

what is an integral

what is curvature

>googled it
OH FUCK it is 1/3x^3

curvature is an expression of how much a curve bends. usually expressed using polar coordinates.

Extremely wrong. The derivative of 1/2 x^3 is equal to 3/2x^2. So no, the antiderivative of x^2 is x^3/3
Basically the opposite of a derivative, not exactly that but yes.
Told you, remember to use Judaism to not forget your steps. ((((Jews))))

I'm Christian so I make a mistake but then correct it later.

It's okay. I often can't see the Juden when it's in front of me either, but the parenthesis helps me see it more clearly.
Also yes, you are understanding it now. Now try to solve the integral and show the steps, i can't post pictures because the Yea Forums Jews don't let me

Bump bc none of you faggots did this

There's nothing to solve there user.

Solve the last four digits of your post rere

i don't know what an integral is either i'm gonna look it up but first i have to wosh dishes

6221-1226=4995
9954-4599=5355
5553-3555=1998
9981-1899=8082
8820-0288=8532
8532-2358=6174
7641-1467=6174
So much wow.
Still nothing solved user, this is just input and output, nothing to solve here.

Study what a derivative is first user. And before you study what a derivative is you should study algebra and analitical geometry and general geometry in the xy plane.

no. assume you have no knowledge of pi

Here you go Kaprekar poster.

Does it have to be the exact area or can I approximate?

So give me a proof on why that is the way it is.

I'm lazy
Here you go: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1325033/proof-of-6174-as-the-unique-4-digit-kaprekars-constant

I can also be a little bit lazy and just write a python code that tests this for all 4 digit numbers and prints the steps for all of them except the ones that have all 4 digits as the same number. But I'm too lazy for that.

You can just test it for every 4 digit number, then every time you reach 6174 add 1 to the counter, then if the counter reaches 9991 then print "yes". Done.

>but I'm too lazy for that
/thread

I mean I literally said how to write the code here:
It's already done, if you want a more fancy non brute force proof go here:

If you added all the cube reciprocal of integers, what number would you get?

I think its 1/3

i'm trying to really understand the difference between covariant and contravariant tensors. I know its a shit naming convention, but looking for something i can grasp that makes the difference obvious and memorable.

Wormy. Use it ye Riemann zeta function
en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particular_values_of_the_Riemann_zeta_function
In the article search for the value of 3. It's an irrational number that is approximately equal to 1.2020569

Niggers+society=

Detroit

-infinity + rational number = -infinity

I hope this helps
physicsforums.com/threads/covariant-and-contravariant-tensors.421698/
My nigger brain can't really grasp these concepts yet because I don't know what the fuck a manifold is in the first place, but i think I can understand it a little bit.