How is the law of causation a synthetic a priori concept?

How is the law of causation a synthetic a priori concept?

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It isn't, only particular propositions are synthetic (either a priori or a posteriori). Necessity itself is simply a priori, it's one of the categories.

Okay, how is cause-and-effect an a priori concept?

The problem Kant's trying to solve is that to logically predicate something about something thing "in the world" requires certainty about the thing's essence, and that would involve a finite being (a human) somehow having infinite knowledge (in both a qualitative sense, and in the temporal sense that the judgment has held and will hold good forever). One sceptical solution to this problem was to say that we never make more than "probable" or habitual judgments, but we don't actually know anything with certainty, for example the laws of nature or their regularity. But a lot of logically strange questions then arise how we even have concepts of necessary causality if we can never see it in nature. How can a finite being interact with finite, particular events and somehow derive a judgment about the internal, necessary, infinitely and universally true nature of those events? Even worse, how is it that even a child can make logical judgments of universal and necessary form?

Kant's solution is to say that we see everything under the aspect of causality, so that causal relations are as much a necessary precondition of our experience as is our intuition of things as temporal and spatial. This preserves the apodictic nature of logic by separating logic from the essences of things in themselves. Logic becomes a part of us, a tool for making pure judgments of universally valid form, in general. Anyone can do this, because it's simply part of our native comportment. But to do it well and correctly still requires diligence.

Essentially Kant was trying to rescue logic of the prestigious Wolffian-Leibnizian rationalist kind from scepticism and "common sense" philosophy that uses certain problems with rationalism (like the casuistry of deducing an entire cosmology from a few harebrained logical principles) as a basis for saying that all judgments are merely probable. Kant wants to rescue the "scientificity" of Enlightenment logic, rationalism, and Newtonian physics, but he understands he can't do that without sacrificing a "strong" rationalism that claims to predicate straightforwardly about the world as it is in itself. That all being said, his solution was pretty much satisfying to nobody.

gotta say this kant guy sounds pretty smart

>how we even have concepts of necessary causality if we can never see it in nature.
Just a misinterpretation of repeated conjoinment to make reasoning simpler

>How can a finite being interact with finite, particular events and somehow derive a judgment about the internal, necessary, infinitely and universally true nature of those events?
They can't. Only probabilistic truths

> how is it that even a child can make logical judgments of universal and necessary form?
Misinterpretating conjoinment as causality is not something so difficult that a child can't do. Causality is just an approximation of reality that is easier to reason about despite being less accurate

>
Kant's solution is to say that we see everything under the aspect of causality, so that causal relations are as much a necessary precondition of our experience as is our intuition of things as temporal and spatial.
Yeah, I don't get his argument. Is he just asserting that inferring causality is some sort of innate aptitude and we should believe this because of what? Cause we're scared about what happens otherwise?

>Essentially Kant was trying to rescue logic of the prestigious Wolffian-Leibnizian rationalist
I thought he was trying to save it from Hume

>That all being said, his solution was pretty much satisfying to nobody.
Then why is often considered the greatest modern philosopher?

also maybe your mind runs on causal hardware so it comes preloaded with causality

It's not that the law of causation is itself synthetic a priori, its that the concept of a "cause" itself contains the necessary connection with its "effect"; the latter can only be posited through and follow on from the former. Therefore what Kant does is to show that we don't come to know and understand causality through the succession or repetition of cause-and-effects, but rather that experience is derived from the pure categories of understanding. The way in which we know causality is orientated according to the contiguity and simultaneity of a priori concepts, the immediate spatiotemporal experience of the subject. What is synthetic a priori are judgements made concerning causal relationships, not causality itself.

That's a bug not a feature

idk bro maybe if you have a causal mind even with no outside input pure self reflection could arrive at causality seems like a good foundation 2 me

>but rather that experience is derived from the pure categories of understanding.
Sure, but how would an observer distinguish between cause-and-effect, coincidence, correlation contingent on the principle of uniformity of nature, etc

>pure self reflection could arrive at causality
I don't see how reason can bridge cause and effect

every thought follows from a previous thought
idk just spitballing

you can't distinguish between them, but you can make a defensible claim as to whether "something" has happened or not. Synthetic a priori judgements can be wrong (and therefore falsifiable), whereas the a priori concepts of understanding cannot and are self-evidential. You don't need to be able to distinguish between coincidence and causality to apprehend causality itself.

Yeah, Hobbes also said that succession of thoughts is governed by laws.

But I don't think that implies the first thought is alone the cause of the second thought. If the second thought is an effect, the cause is an unknown subset of the previous state of the universe. i.e. the first thought, along with something you heard, the place you're in, the time, and whatever else makes up the current state. But that's infinite to calculate, and we can't reason what exactly was the subset of states that led to the effect. e.g. having the same first thought again in a different state may not lead to the the same second thought, so how can you know the first thought alone was the cause of the second thought?

So you're saying his argument is that causality exists but cannot be reliably inferred from observeations by humans?

yeah the full light cone of causality seems more real maybe you could do something cool like whittling down the universe to extract the space that preserves the most information in your caused event
like andromeda is 0.01% of causality and your brain is 80% rest is somewhere in between
I have not read kant or hobbes or anything

>maybe you could do something cool like whittling down the universe to extract the space that preserves the most information in your caused event
Maybe if we were "infinite" beings like they describe God, but we're finite so I was curious how Kant is arguing that humans can deal with causality, but I guess he's not really committed to go against Hume's problem of induction

yeah I guess I walked a roundabout path to not answer the real question
that's what I get for not reading but the speculation was fun

it cannot be inferred from observation, but it can be deduced through the pure concepts of space and time. Hume claims that contiguity and succession are necessary conditions of causality, whereas Kant posits that both are in fact synthetic a priori judgements, and therefore not necessary in the way that a priori concepts are. The simultaneous recognition of contiguity (spatial proximity) and succession (the effect following on from the cause) is not obtained through repeated observation but through the pure concepts of understanding (space and time in particular).

>is not obtained through repeated observation but through the pure concepts of understanding (space and time in particular).
So you mean Kant imagined an universe where humans posses a bunch of a priori cognitive concepts from which causality can be deduced?

sweety, please dont write long winded posts about kant when you cant even greentext properly. you are making a fool out of yourself. i was real nice responding to your very bad post that demonstrates how you havent read any philosophy at all, and other posters have been nice enough to leave your post alone, but if you continute like this you're gonna have a hard time.

bye bye, hope to see you posting again soon (as long its not just long list of all the ways you dont understand kant, like this post was, hihi)!

K tard

sweetie! you did it again!

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causation knowledge a priori is possible (synthetic knwoledge a priori is possible) because we have the category of causation a priori to any experience; which is necessary fo us to form most experience?
So is the realization of the category analytical and just the a prioir use of this cause is synthetic?